[New Dumps] Which is the Latest Questions for Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

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100-105 dumps

Best Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network administrator is testing connectivity from the branch router to the newly installed application server. What is the most likely reason for the first ping having a success rate of only 60 percent?
A. The network is likely to be congested, with the result that packets are being intermittently dropped.
B. The branch router had to resolve the application server MAC address.
C. There is a short delay while NAT translates the server IP address.
D. A routing table lookup delayed forwarding on the first two ping packets.
E. The branch router LAN interface should be upgraded to FastEthernet.
Correct Answer: B

Initially the MAC address had to be resolved, but once it is resolved and is in the ARP table of the router, pings go through immediately.

Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?
A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.
B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.
C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.
D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.
Correct Answer: B

The Process ID for OSPF on a router is only locally significant and you can use the same number on each router, or each router can have a different number-it just doesn\’t matter.

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Correct Answer: CD

Ping may be used to find out whether the local machines are connected to the network or whether a remote site is reachable. This tool is a common network tool for determining the network. 100-105 dumps

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Pierre has just installed the mail server and Switch2. For security reasons UDP packets are not permitted outbound on the Fa0/1 router interface. Pierre is now at his workstation testing the new installation and is not able to establish SMTP communication to the mail server.
What is the most likely cause for lack of communication between Pierre\’s workstation and the mail server?
A. The crossover cable should be a straight-through cable.
B. UDP is blocked coming out of the Fa0/1 interface on the router.
C. The server should be directly connected to the router.
D. The IP addresses are all on the same network. No router is required.
Correct Answer: A

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

You can use the port security feature to restrict input to an interface by limiting and identifying MAC addresses of the stations allowed to access the port.

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Why did the device return this message?
A. The command requires additional options or parameters
B. There is no show command that starts with ru.
C. The command is being executed from the wrong router mode.
D. There is more than one show command that starts with the letters ru.
Correct Answer: D

Answer D is correct because when you type the incomplete command it will not autocomplete if there is more than one option for completing the command. In this case, there is another command that als.

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. 100-105 dumps All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Correct Answer: DF

There are 2 segments on the topology above which are separated by Corp-3 router. Each segment will have a DR so we have 2 DRs. To select which router will become DR they will compare.

Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
A. IEEE 802 1w
B. IEEE 802 1D
C. IEEE 802 1Q
D. IEEE 802 1p
Correct Answer: C

Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
Correct Answer: C

How do you bypass password on cisco device?
A. Change the configuration register to 0x2142. With this setting when that router reboots, it bypasses the startup-config and no password is required.
Correct Answer: A

100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which two of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA? (Choose two.)
A. At least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. Only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. Remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. Console line connections will nevertime out due to inactivity
E. Since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is not a need to use the NAT protocol
Correct Answer: AC

Drag the appropriate command on the left to the configuration task it accomplishes. (Not all options are used.)
Select and Place:
100-105 dumps
Correct Answer:
100-105 dumps
Which statement about 6to4 tunneling is true?
A. One tunnel endpoint must be configured with IPv4 only
B. It establishes a point-to-point tunnel
C. Both tunnel endpoints must be configured with IPv4 only
D. Both tunnel endpoints must support IPv4 and IPv6
Correct Answer: D

Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ipdhcp conflict
B. ipdhcp-server pool DHCP
C. ipdhcp pool DHCP
D. ipdhcp-client pool DHCP
Correct Answer: C

Which three network addresses are reserved for private network use? 100-105 dumps (Choose three)
Correct Answer: ACE

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
A. This design will function as intended.
B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.
E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.
Correct Answer: C

The proposed addressing scheme is on the same network. Cisco routers will not allow you to assign two different interfaces to be on the same IP subnet.

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Correct Answer: A

The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is Cost = 108/ Bandwidth

An administrator is working with the network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)
Correct Answer: CD

Increment: 64 (/26 = 11111111.11111111.11111111.11000000) The IP belongs to class C. The default subnet mask of class C is /24 and it has been subnetted with a /26 mask so we have 2(26- 100-105 dumps

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which default gateway address should be assigned to HostA?
Correct Answer: B

The default gateway will be the IP address of the router that it connects to, not the switch.

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
Correct Answer: E

The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast AR

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct. AREA 2 o

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core-Router?
A. Core-Router is connected to more than one multi-access network.
B. The router at is a secondary DR in case the primary fails.
C. Two router IDs have the same OSPF priority and are therefore tied for DR election
D. The DR election is still underway and there are two contenders for the role.
Correct Answer: A

OSPF elects one DR per multi-access network. In the exhibit there are two DR so there must have more than one multiaccess network.

Refer to the exhibit.

After the power-on-self test (POST), the system LED of a Cisco 2950 switch turns amber. What is the status of the switch?
A. The POST was successful.
B. The switch has a problem with the internal power supply and needs an external power supply to be attached.
C. POST failed and there is a problem that prevents the operating system from being loaded.
D. The switch has experienced an internal problem but data can still be forwarded at a slower rate.
E. The switch passed POST, but all the switch ports are busy.
Correct Answer: C

Each time you power up the switch, eight Power-On Self Tests (POSTs) run automatically. POSTs c

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Assume that all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. In addition, assume that OSPF has been correctly configured on router R2. How will the default route configured on R1 affect the operation of R2?
A. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately.
B. Any packet destined for a network that is not referenced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet back to R2 and a routing loop will occur.
C. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R1 will be dropped.
D. The networks directly connected to router R2 will not be able to communicate with the,, and subnetworks.
E. Any packet destined for a network that is not directly connected to router R2 will be dropped immediately because of the lack of a gateway on R1.
Correct Answer: B

First, notice that the more-specific routes will always be favored over less-specific routes regardless of the administrative distance set for a protocol. In this case, because we use OSPF for three. 100-105 dumps

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
If CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, which devices will appear in the output of a show cdp neighbors command issued from R2?
A. R2 and R3
B. R1 and R3
C. R3 and S2
D. R1, S1, S2, and R3
E. R1, S1, S2, R3, and S3
Correct Answer: C

A Cisco device enabled with CDP sends out periodic interface updates to a multicast address in order to make itself known to neighbors. Since it is a layer two protocol, these packets are not routed.

What does a host on an Ethernet network do when it is creating a frame and it does not have the destination address?
A. Drops the frame
B. Sends out a Layer 3 broadcast message
C. Sends a message to the router requesting the address
D. Sends out an ARP request with the destination IP address
Correct Answer: D

In this case, it will send out an ARP request for MAC address of the destination IP (assuming it doesn\’t already have it in its table) and then address it to the destination\’s MAC address.

A switch has 48 ports and 4 VLANs. How many collision and broadcast domains exist on the switch (collision, broadcast)?
A. 4, 48
B. 48, 4
C. 48, 1
D. 1, 48
E. 4, 1
Correct Answer: B

A switch uses a separate collision domain for each port, and each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain.

Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD prot

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?
A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.
Correct Answer: D

Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than using a dynamic method such as DHCP as it is easy to operate and manage.

Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame?
A. It will drop the frame.
B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only.
C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only.
D. It will flood the frame out all ports.
E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3.
Correct Answer: E

When frame receives the frame, it checks the source address on MAC table if MAC address found in MAC table it tries to forward if not in MAC table adds the Address on MAC table.

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