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400-251 dumps

Latest Cisco CCIE 400-051 dumps exam questions and answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement best describes the concepts of rootkits and privilege escalation?
A. Rootkits propagate themselves.
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are a result of a privilege escalation.
D. Both of these require a TCP port to gain access.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about PVLAN port types are true ? (Choose two)
A. A promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain
B. An isolated port can receive traffic t from promiscuous ports in any community on its Broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to ports in its own community
C. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports
D. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous ports in other communities its Broadcast domain
E. A community port can send traffic to community ports in other communities its Broadcast domain
F. A promiscuous can send traffic to to community ports in other Broadcast domainS
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
On an ASA firewall in multiple context mode running version 8.X, what is the default number of VPN siteto-site tunnels per context?
A. 2 sessions
B. 4 sessions
C. 1 session
D. 0 sessions
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two options describe the main purpose of EIGRP authentication?(Choose two)
A. to allow faster convergence
B. to identify authorized peers
C. to provide redundancy
D. to provide routing updates confidentiality
E. to prevent injection of incorrect routing information
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco ASA multiple-context mode of operation configuration ,what three session types are resourcelimited by default when their context is a member of the default class? 400-251 dumps (Choose three)
A. ASDM sessions
B. Telnet sessions
C. IPSec sessions
D. SSL VPN sessions
E. TCP sessions
F. SSH sessions
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
400-251 dumps
A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. NAT-PT
B. SNAT
C. NAT64
D. DNAT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT-6to4
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
According to RFC 4890, which three message must be dropped at the transit firewall/router?(Choose three.)
A. Router Renumbering(Type 138)
B. Node Information Query(Type 139)
C. Router Solicitation(Type 133)
D. Node information Response(Type
E. Router Advertisement(Type 134)
F. Neighbor Solicitation(Type 135)
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (choose two)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
From the list below, which one is the major benefit of AMP Threat GRID?
A. AMP Threat Grid collects file information from customer servers and run tests on them to see if they are infected with viruses
B. AMP Threat Grid learns ONLY from data you pass on your network and not from anything else to monitor for suspicious behavior. This makes the system much faster and efficient
C. AMP Threat Grid combines Static, and Dynamic Malware analysis with threat intelligence into one combined solution
D. AMP Threat Grid analyzes suspicious behavior in your network against exactly 400 behavioral indicators
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? 400-251 dumps (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client
B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the DES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The DES algorithm is based on asymmetric cryptography.
B. The DES algorithm is a stream cipher.
C. The DES algorithm is based on symmetric cryptography.
D. The DES algorithm encrypts a block of 128 bits.
E. The DES algorithm uses a 56-bit key.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 17
Which of these is a core function of the risk assessment process? (Choose one.)
A. performing regular network upgrades
B. performing network optimization
C. performing network posture validation
D. establishing network baselines
E. prioritizing network roll-outs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What is the name of the unique tool/feature in cisco security manager that is used to merge an access list based on the source/destination IP address service or combination of these to provide a manageable view of access policies?
A. merge rule tool
B. policy simplification tool
C. rule grouping tool
D. object group tool
E. combine rule tool
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 19
Which two statements about the ISO are true? (Choose two)
A. The ISO is a government-based organization.
B. The ISO has three membership categories: member, correspondent, and subscribers.
C. Only member bodies have voting rights.
D. Correspondent bodies are small countries with their own standards organization.
E. Subscriber members are individual organizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 20
What security element must an organization have in place before it can implement a security audit and validate the audit results? 400-251 dumps
A. firewall
B. network access control
C. an incident response team
D. a security policy
E. a security operation center
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)
A. asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B. normal response mode (NRM)
C. normal peer mode (NPM)
D. asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E. asynchronous response mode (ARM)
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 22
IP over DWDM management models (Choose two.)
A. Segmented Management
B. Integrated Management
C. Virtual Transponder
D. Traffic Management
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)
A. general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B. section monitoring
C. reserved (RES)
D. general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 24
What is one of the primary overhead fields associated with the Optical Payload Unit (OPU)?
A. path monitoring
B. tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)
C. Payload Structure Identifier (PSI)
D. multiframe alignment signal (MFAS)
E. section monitoring
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?
A. for trail trace identification
B. as the backward defect indicator
C. to transmit information between OTU termination points
D. to extend command and management functions over several frames
E. General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
What is the minimum hardware configuration of the multishelf Cisco CRS-1 system?
A. One route processor (RP) card and one modular services card (MSC)
B. One distributed route processor (DRP) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
C. One line card chassis (LCC) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
D. One route processor (RP) and one fabric card chassis (FCC)
E. One line card chassis (LCC) and one S13 fabric card (SFC)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? 400-251 dumps (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. RIB
C. FIB
D. QoS
E. PFI
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which statement about Software Maintenance Upgrade is true?
A. CRS-1 SMU can be applied to a different platform, and vice versa.
B. SMU is an executable code for running a process or libraries that are shared between the different processes.
C. SMUs for each release are individually downloadable from Cisco.com and come in the form of a tar ball.
D. SMUs provide software fixes for critical network down and qualification blocking issues. Therefore, every software defect has a corresponding SMU.
E. SMUs are release-specific. If an issue affects multiple platforms or releases, an SMU is built separately for each release and each platform.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Cisco IOS XR has implemented a nonstop routing feature so that when RP failover occurs, the routing information can be recovered locally. Which protocol does not support the NSR feature?
A. OSPF
B. LDP
C. BGP
D. IS-IS
E. RSVP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. modular line cards
B. shelf controllers
C. route processors
D. service processors
E. distributed service cards
Correct Answer: BCD

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